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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 02:57

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Why is America so fucked up?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

A protestant (one that adheres to sola scriptura) disagrees with a catholic. How do they propose resolving the dispute?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Why doesn’t the UK change their flag?

There's no rule.